With tone dialling, the originator of a call sends tones to dial and for other purposes (e.g. to select options from a menu).
Is it possible for the recipient of a call to send tones in the same way?
The reason I ask is that I have an international SIM (for use on my travels) that works on a call-back basis (i.e. one dials the number one wants and then the service calls one back to make the connection). I've tried interrogating my home landline answerphone service using this SIM (which is done via keypad tones) and the answerphone either just does not receive the tones or does not respond. I assume it is the former as the answerphone interrogation works fine when dialled directly from (say) my UK moby.
BTW, in the set-up with the international SIM I'm guessing that both ends of the call are effectively recipients (connected together via the service I'm subscribed to). Especially as when the call-back comes in (and I answer it), the phone at the other end is ringing.
This thread is now locked and can not be replied to.