# clarification on a bit of maths please

bumpkin 22:23 10 Sep 2017

As an example 100 items, one person has 51 and the other 49. I say one has 1% more than the other. Others say it is 2%. Who is correct.

Forum Editor 22:27 10 Sep 2017

One person has 51% of the total, the other person has 49% of the total.

The difference between them is 2%.

bumpkin 23:22 10 Sep 2017

So one has 1% more than the other and the other has 1% less. So one has 1% more although the difference is 2%. Which makes me correct.

wee eddie 00:50 11 Sep 2017

2%

hzhzhzhz 01:21 11 Sep 2017

2%

Forum Editor 08:06 11 Sep 2017

"So one has 1% more than the other"

No, the answer is 2%. I suggest you quit now - you were wrong.

alanrwood 10:23 11 Sep 2017

The question can be looked at in more than one way. The question is phrased "one has 1% more than the other" ie it is a comparitive question. It depends on what figure the difference is between the two. If you state "more than" then the base figure for comparison is the lower proportion ie the 49%. The higher proportion is therefore 51% ie 2% higher. But those are absolute values, not comparative values. So to compare the excess amount this is calculated as the difference over the figure being compared against. ie (51-49) divided by 49 ie 2 divided by 49 ie 4.08%.

rickf 10:43 11 Sep 2017

To me, it is 2%. I am not going t argue about it though. Seems like simple logic to me. I could be wrong of course, but I doubt it.

wee eddie 10:54 11 Sep 2017

To achieve the result you want, you'll need to divide the pot by 49.5% and 50.5%

lotvic 15:31 11 Sep 2017

TwittersNot4Me, no, you've misunderstood the first post. FE is correct as per post at 22:27 10 Sep 2017.

bremner 15:40 11 Sep 2017

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